Question 56
Does there exist a function $f$ from the positive integers to itself, such that for any positive integers $a$ and $b$, we have $\operatorname{gcd}(a, b)=1$ if and only if $\operatorname{gcd}(f(a), f(b))\gt 1$ holds?
Math Olympiad Vault · MathNet 2026 — Part 09