Question 2Let $a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_n,b_1,b_2,\ldots,b_n,p$ be real numbers with $p>-1$. Prove that $$\sum_{i=1}^n(a_i-b_i)\left(a_i(a_1^2+a_2^2+\cdots+a_n^2)^{p/2}-b_i(b_1^2+b_2^2+\cdots+b_n^2)^{p/2}\right)\ge0.$$